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Time to wank.
BreezeHM
BreezeHM
Stop wanking
GarrixianXD
GarrixianXD
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Messaging users who have been in Home Alone threads to see if they can give votes or thoughts on the match I'm doing. Can you help?

Hi! Do you have a Discord account? I asked this because I wanted to talk a bit about some scaling, if that doesn't bother you.
BTW, I hope that you had a merry christmas. :)
You need to go outside and touch some fresh air.
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TWILIGHT-OP
TWILIGHT-OP
Free cuz of winter vacation 👀, also I am already at my grandmother house in countryside rn, so getting fresh air everyday.
About this thread, Can you give your opinion on this?

One of the mods agreed with what you said, but Franz thinks that Worlds should be higher

Hmmm... if I recall correctly, the principle of an overarching timeline comes when... eh, let me make an analogy:

Timeline A encompasses Timeline B, and Timeline A is been said to have its own time axis separate from Timeline B. Timeline A, as depicted as being a superior structure, contains Timeline A, and since Timeline B acts like a subset of Timeline A, manipulating the time and time travelling in Timeline A will also affect Timeline B as a byproduct. However, if manipulating the time in Timeline B and time travelling only in Timeline B, Timeline A won't be remotely affected at all. Hence, Timeline A is a hyper-timeline / overarching timeline and, therefore has a second time axis orthogonal to the main time axis that is inter-governed and parallelly aligned with Timeline B.
This is pretty correct except that an overarching timeline does not have two time axes, but only one, the latter being orthogonal to the time axes of the dimensions it contains and acting as you described.

To quote Profectus' post:
Also, since I don’t believe anyone’s asked you this directly, I might as well pose the question now. Say we have a multiverse encompassed by an overarching timeline. Obviously, this isn’t inherently Low 1-C since the overarching timeline can be a single time dimension servicing all of space-time. Let’s say however, that the lesser timelines are confirmed to harbor their own time dimensions. Would you then consider the overarching timeline to be a higher time dimension, and would you consider it an additional direction? If not, is supporting evidence like the examples you gave needed for specific ratings, or is it merely an alternative form of evidence?

DT's answer:
Depends on what exactly dimension means in this context. Like, if it's very strictly mathematical to the point that we can conclude that they don't point in the same direction, then it would be fine. However, per default and I suspect in most cases we would find, I would instead assume it means they each have their own flow of time which may change independently of each other.

Good evidence can come in many forms and would need case-by-case evaluation. My examples are just about the only cases I could come up with that would be sufficient.

The second time axis already falls into the case of a hypertimeline and the thing with time travel is generally used to show that the second axis is orthogonal and has a time-like development. The principle of the hypertimeline is that during time travel, new timelines of the Multiverse are created on the second time axis.
^^Is your case something like this?
Overall I would say yes, the aspect of the stories and the fact that each dimension has its time axis would guarantee the fact that affecting the time axis of a microcosm will not affect that of the macrocosm but on the contrary the time of the macrocosm can affect that of the microcosms (proven with time travel on the World-lines). And yes it's the same as what you mentioned when considering World-lines and the Universe, where time travel didn't affect the Universe but just a World-line and so by extension all dimensions will have a similar characteristic.
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