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Is The Theory of Forms Automatically 1-A?

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Was wondering because I saw pseudo-platonic conceptual manipulation. Which I guess means the concept transcends and shapes it's reality, but not at a 1-A scale? I wondered how that would affect requirements related to ToFs?
 
As already said in Concept Manip page. Depends on how ToF is explained in the fictional work, I guess. It could be False ToF, or True ToF.

So no 'Automatically 1-A' to my understanding.
 
But what makes a False Platonic Concept different from a true one? From my understanding, Plato's Forms exist in a third realm beyond both outer material Universe (macrocosm) and inner Universe of consciousness (microcosm), and the False ones, tho they do dictate all of reality don't exist in this 'third' realm and thus aren't completely atemporal and aspatial
 
The difference is that the False one trascend a reality by one or more dimensional planes.

The true ones completely trascend all dimensions, and are thus 1-A.
 
That is the difference after we have concluded if a certain character is a Platonic concept or not

My question is how do we find the difference while reading about a character in fiction
 
DMB 1 said:
The difference is that the False one trascend a reality by one or more dimensional planes.

The true ones completely trascend all dimensions, and are thus 1-A.
I think the question is "how can we tell the difference?"
 
If they are described as being 1-A, they are fully Platonic. If not, they are False Platonic. It's as simple as that really.
 
I'm not familiar with Jungian Archetypes, but if they're basically the same as Platonic concepts, in that they're beyond all spatial and temporal dimensional constructs, then they'd be 1-A.
 
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