To be fair here, do you have anything to back-up these claim rather than just your own.........interpretation???.
To back up which claim exactly? The one about Conceptual Manipulation inherently being tied to cause and effect?
The entire act of "manipulating" a concept implies cause and effect. Being able to change and alter a concept, or project it onto objects, would require that.
How else are you supposed to change a concept? Or apply it to something to inflict change onto a specific target? Those actions imply causality.
Also, you know concepts themselves can change, right? Like, they do all the time. For example, the concept of "communication" has changed over the years of humanity's existence. It used to only encompass things like speech, talking, etc... but now in the digital age this can be mail, texts, images, etc. You can apply this same logic to things like the concept of "work," or the concept of "privacy." Ideas that have largely transformed in meaning over time, yet still remain universal in scope across reality.
Concepts aren't at all inherently outside of causality or anything of the sort. Unless you want to refer to Universals and specific kinds of Type 1 concepts.
Hell, the Conceptual Manipulation page even directly states that Type 2 concepts can be changed by altering the objects they are bound by.
So, no, just having conceptual manipulation abilities does not mean you can inherently affect something that doesn't participate in change.
The same way just having conceptual manipulation doesn't mean you can affect something nonexistent, or something that doesn't participate in certain dualities that your concept hax are reliant on. To say so would be No-Limits-Fallacy to the highest degree.