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Not entirely separated as they will end up as Low 2C in that case.1 time travel: imagine a verse that has numerous structures that are called "universes" in verse, some of them have a planet of the same name, but we are never told that they are branches of each other or something like that, and in this hypothetical verse, someone time travel to the past and only interferes in one of the said "universes" and yet a whole timeline branches off and all of the said "universes" are equally branched even when the said time travel doesn't happen in them, so my doubt would be, what is the standard for this type of stuff? i heard from DDM and Executor_N0 in other threads that there is a specific kind of multiverse that would allow them all to be affected and still all still being separated space times per out standard assumption of universe=space time even with the time travel affecting all of them, so what is the standard for this type of stuff? do we go with the assumption of the different type of multiverse or do we go with the notion that none of these said universes are separated space times but rather different dimensions inside the same space time continuum?
Honestly, we usually go by case by case basis for that reason anyway since it is not like they are entirely separate anyway.