Nigh-Omnipresent vs Omnipresent

[Zenkaibattery1]

I'm a little confused about the standards

To be omnipresent, do you have to be everywhere in your own cosmology, or just within a universe is enough to qualify? Because techncially you are fully omnipresent throughout said universe.

Also, assuming you have to be everywhere in your own cosmology to be fully omnipresent: if character x is Nigh-Omnipresent within 2 universes but their multiverse is 3 universes, and character Z is full omnipresent within the 1 universe in their cosmology, we should assume character X's Nigh-Omnipresent is greater than character Z's full on omnipresence, correct?

Because sometimes I have seen people get confused and say "Character Z is full omnipresent whereas character X is only nigh therefore character Z>X"

 

[Firephoenixearl]

Who even says "full omnipresence wins vs nigh omnipresence"?

They both do the same thing. Unless it's limited to a very restricted area, it won't lose to omnipresent.

 

[Elizhaa]

It is basically as Earl explained.

 

[ZacharyGrossman273]

Yeah the only way it's inferior is it's it's like "omnipresent in their own universe"