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Small question about dimensionality: Ultima may be slightly wrong

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So I was reading the recent Staff Thread about a clear standard for Low 1-C scaling, what does and doesn't qualify as such and more. Within that thread, I came across a transcript of a statement apparently made by Ultima in this post within a Kingdom Hearts CRT. To save you the trouble, the statement reads as the following:

Low 1-C is fine by me. We already assume that the space in which spacetimes are displaced is 5-D, at present. Add that to the space in question here being explicitly described as infinite and the worlds as "small" compared to it, and you have a fairly straightforward case.

I don't think the 2-A option is terribly logical either, after mulling it over: 2-A would imply that universes in KH are displaced over 4-D space, which doesn't work when parallelism of any two objects by definition requires an extra axis: For two line segments to be parallel, you'd have to set it so they wouldn't touch regardless of how far they are extended, which wouldn't be possible if they stood side-by-side in 1-D space as in here, meaning you would need them to be displaced over a plane. Same thing happens with planes: For them to be parallel, they shouldn't ever be able to meet, so you'd need them to be displaced over 3-D space. Generalizing that to the 4-D case, spacetimes would obviously have to be displaced over a 5-D region (This works by definition, too: If they're different spacetime continuums then obviously they can't share the same space, in the way 3-D objects exist around us for instance)


Now, while I admittedly do not have nearly as much knowledge and experience in Tier 1 scaling as Ultima does (nor am I nearly as familiar with the intricacies of our standards for such), I believe Ultima here made a blunder in his explanation which leads to several mathematical tautologies, especially if these are actually our standards as his statement seems to imply. Allow me to explain:

"which doesn't work when parallelism of any two objects by definition requires an extra axis"
This is not necessarily true always. For two objects to be held parallel to one another, they must simply be physically displaced in a sufficiently large space (ergo, at least larger than their size + whatever distance between them) of the same order. For example, two finite parallel line segments can be parallel to each other while being merely parts of two infinite and parallel line segments. If Ultima is trying to talk about infinitely sized objects instead, then it is accurate. Parallelism of two infinitely sized objects does warrant a higher order space. This distinction is important I believe as I'll explain further.

"For two line segments to be parallel, you'd have to set it so they wouldn't touch regardless of how far they are extended, which wouldn't be possible if they stood side-by-side in 1-D space as in here, meaning you would need them to be displaced over a plane."
I underlined that part specifically because it is the most important part of that statement and related directly to what I stated above. It is ONLY a requirement if the object in question is infinite in its size. But there is yet another flaw with this statement, in that last part Ultima mentions that accommodating two infinitely extending line segments warrants a plane, which is only partially true. Said planes however ALSO need to be infinitely sized in AT LEAST one axis. Try drawing an infinitely extending line segment (or even just a very long line segment) on normal sheet of paper, you'll see what I mean. You can only do this if the plane (in this case the sheet of paper) was infinitely large in either length of width. The reason I mention axes instead of just one axis is because of a simple fact about rotation being isometric [SO(2)]. This implies that by taking an arbitrary origin for an object and rotating it about that, properties such as Euclidean distance are invariant. In simpler words, two lines being displaced "horizontally" or "vertically" are the same thing, with the difference being a mere rotation matrix (this generally works for rotation of almost any kind). So the plane has to be infinite in size in at least one of these axes to be able to hold within it two infinitely extending line segments. I hope this is clear.

"Same thing happens with planes: For them to be parallel, they shouldn't ever be able to meet, so you'd need them to be displaced over 3-D space."

As I explained above already, this isn't necessarily true either if the planes aren't infinite in size (in either of the axes). If the infinitely sized, then not only do you need a 3-D space to hold them, but you in fact need an infinitely sized 3-D space to hold them for the exact same reasons I explained above. And yes, it has to be infinite in at least any one of the 3-dimensions, either in its length, width or height. The planes can be rotated within the space, as most of the important properties are invariant to SO(2) or SO(3) rotation (a theorem I've proven in linear algebra classes btw).

"Generalizing that to the 4-D case, spacetimes would obviously have to be displaced over a 5-D region (This works by definition, too: If they're different spacetime continuums then obviously they can't share the same space, in the way 3-D objects exist around us for instance)"


And lastly this statement. Now one might already imagine that it has the exact same flaws as the statements before it, and before I even talk about it I need to point out something else. Specifically, the "generalizing" part. Where does this generalization come from, assuming everything about it is accurate (which, if you've been paying attention, I've pointed out that it isn't)? How can Ultima prove that this generalization is accurate? It seems quite hand-wavy, a generalization like that needs proof, or some kind of standard. He didn't prove that this "fact" can be extended to the 4th dimensional case, nor did he prove the ACTUAL generalization that this holds true for any number of N or N+1 dimensions. By the way, Ultima didn't clarify whether he is talking about 4D Euclidean space or Minkowski space, I assume he meant Minkowski space as he mentions "space-time", but if that's the case, his "generalization" is immediately invalid as the examples he's been citing of 2D and 3D spaces are that of Euclidean space, which is different to Minkowski space as the former only has spacelike dimensions while the latter also possesses timelike dimensions and, at least to my knowledge, there is no 2D or 3D analogue of Minkowskian space that he could've been talking about anyway. Math nerd rant aside, this still has the same problems as I described above already, a 4D space would ONLY need to be displaced across a 5D space IFF it is infinite in at least one of its dimensions, in which case, the 5D space must ALSO be infinite in at least the same number of dimensions (notice I didn't say the same "kind" of dimensions, that's precisely because, again, a rotation can solve that problem, we use quarterionic and octionionic rotations in these cases which also happen to be isometric, a theorem I proved in Topology).

I am aware that this is my very first attempt at writing such a huge post, so it is very much possible I may have misunderstood or misinterpreted some of what Ultima had said, especially since this is just one of his countless other statements on how Tier 1 functions, which may offer further context than this single isolated statement does. That being said, as I pointed out before, it seems to me that what Ultima is describing is actually our current standards for Tier 1 (though that might change soon), and in that sense, I am more so pointing out the problems in the standards. The main problem is about infinite size, the secondary problem being about that hasty and (possibly wrong) generalization. On that note, I should point out that I do have proof of a generalization like that in my notes, where I prove how certain properties are invariant regardless of however many dimensions we are talking about. I would be happy to send that here HOWEVER that proof is ONLY for Euclidean spaces, not Minowski space, which is how the wiki treats 4D space as (space-times).


Edit: I am not a huge fan of arbitrary flip-flopping between mathematical logic and whatever other weird (and arbitrary) standard is being used here, and this may very well be a huge reason why Tier 1 is easily the most messed up tier on the wiki currently. Some mods may not make exactly the same kind of arbitrary jumps in logic that Ultima does, and thus would end up with vastly different definitions and standards of Low 1-C and the original thread linked above demonstrates this fact well.
 
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I'm not even sure what's being proposed here. A large chunk of this talks about finite sized parallel objects, which aren't relevant to higher tiers being reasoned out using this logic. The rest seems to say that it can't be generalised.... for some reason, despite the logic being quite simple and clear.

Personally, I think Ultima still makes sense to me but this is also based on the fact that I can't seem to make out what the post wants to be clarified or changed in regards to our standards.
 
I'm not even sure what's being proposed here. A large chunk of this talks about finite sized parallel objects, which aren't relevant to higher tiers being reasoned out using this logic. The rest seems to say that it can't be generalised.... for some reason, despite the logic being quite simple and clear.
1.) The first thing I am proposing is that, for lower dimensional structures to be displaced in a higher order space, not only do those structures need to be infinite in some way, but the higher order space itself would need to be infinite as well, and I explained why this is in the OP itself. This does make a huge difference, as a verse with infinitely sized universes, for example, could be given a Low 1-C cosmology just based off of that. Not saying it should be accepted but it isn't not relevant to these higher tiers (infinite size itself can make a structure go from "insignificant 5D" to Low 1-C anyway which is basically half of what I am proposing)

2.) The second point about generalization is talking about how making this weird and arbitrary jump between Euclidean space and Minkowski space messes things up greatly, by using examples from the former and then "generalizing" it to the latter arbitrarily. I am saying that this "logic" is not clear even if it sounds "simple", I believe it is faulty
Personally, I think Ultima still makes sense to me but this is also based on the fact that I can't seem to make out what the post wants to be clarified or changed in regards to our standards.
I hope I cleared that part
 
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1.) The first thing I am proposing is that, for lower dimensional structures to be displaced in a higher order space, not only do those structures need to be infinite in some way, but the higher order space itself would need to be infinite as well, and I explained why this is in the OP itself. This does make a huge difference, as a verse with infinitely sized universes, for example, could be given a Low 1-C cosmology just based off of that. Not saying it should be accepted but it isn't not relevant to these higher tiers (infinite size itself can make a structure go from "insignificant 5D" to Low 1-C anyway which is basically half of what I am proposing)
As far as I'm aware, space-time continuums are by default treated as analogous to large or infinite sized 4-dimensional spaces anyway, so this is already taken care of on site. Whether you disagree with that or not, you'd have to address a different standard to start with.

I do agree that the space that they are displaced across needs to itself be infinite in scope but to my understanding, we already have a requirement for that in these types of upgrades. Since I assume you mean this in the case of upgrading such spaces to Low 1-C and beyond.

2.) The second point about generalization is talking about how making this weird and arbitrary jump between Euclidean space and Minkowski space messes things up greatly, by using examples from the former and then "generalizing" it to the latter arbitrarily. I am saying that this "logic" is not clear even if it sounds "simple", I believe it is faulty

I hope I cleared that part
I can at least see what's meant here but it does tie back into my first paragraph. I suppose I can wait for Ultima's response before making any final judgement.
 
Yeah i know what you mean, but the point i think is, you need a infinity lines for make it not intersect with each other, if it intersect it not parallel anymore. The point is to still parallel or not to be intersect

If you already prove the line is parallel with each other, i dont think the infinity line is needed

And for have 2 parallel lines, you must have a flat plane for placed they. Like yeah, you must have a paper for draw 2 lines, whatever the paper is infinity or not, it still "flat plane, 2 dimensional space". So you still need higher order space for placed 2 parallel lines
 
Yeah, that part is the strangest part of the argument now that I think about it. By their nature, two truly parallel objects would have to displaced on a higher axis if they're never to meet. So even if this space they're displaced across is small it's still a higher-dimensional space.

So you're left with the proposal that the space should be provably infinite but.... we already do this. If we didn't then every 2-C feat would be Low 1-C.
 
As far as I'm aware, space-time continuums are by default treated as analogous to large or infinite sized 4-dimensional spaces anyway, so this is already taken care of on site. Whether you disagree with that or not, you'd have to address a different standard to start with.
Which is it? They are vastly different things. But if they are treated as infinite then, as I discussed in the OP, should make the space that holds them Low 1-C immediately. But this leads to the obvious problem of every 2-C verse being rated as Low 1-C, which is why I suggested a remedy that the universes should be infinite as well for this to work (as in, infinitely large). If you have another solution in mind, I'm all ears.
I do agree that the space that they are displaced across needs to itself be infinite in scope but to my understanding, we already have a requirement for that in these types of upgrades. Since I assume you mean this in the case of upgrading such spaces to Low 1-C and beyond.
We do, what I am proposing however is that this requirement likely (or at least should) stem from the fact that those 4D space-times are infinite, thus by-default needing an infinitely large 5D space to hold them (by using Ultima's "generalized" logic, you cannot draw an infinitely long parallel line segments across a finite 2D plane).
I can at least see what's meant here but it does tie back into my first paragraph. I suppose I can wait for Ultima's response before making any final judgement.
Fair enough
 
Yeah i know what you mean, but the point i think is, you need a infinity lines for make it not intersect with each other, if it intersect it not parallel anymore. The point is to still parallel or not to be intersect

If you already prove the line is parallel with each other, i dont think the infinity line is needed

And for have 2 parallel lines, you must have a flat plane for placed they. Like yeah, you must have a paper for draw 2 lines, whatever the paper is infinity or not, it still "flat plane, 2 dimensional space". So you still need higher order space for placed 2 parallel lines
I cannot understand what you're saying. Could you phrase it better?
 
Yeah, that part is the strangest part of the argument now that I think about it. By their nature, two truly parallel objects would have to displaced on a higher axis if they're never to meet.
This is not true, even just by looking at the image Ultima shared in his comment, those two finite line segments are displace in a 1D axis, and they still do not intersect. Of course if you extend them, they will intersect, but that can be remedied by increasing the distance between them. If however you extend them infinitely, only then you do need a 2D plane to hold them without having them intersect.
So even if this space they're displaced across is small it's still a higher-dimensional space.

So you're left with the proposal that the space should be provably infinite but.... we already do this. If we didn't then every 2-C feat would be Low 1-C.
Does the above make it clearer?
 
Bassically all what i mean is the lines is just have to be parallel, not intersect
That's not really the point of this conversation. Look at the the image Utima shared, the two line segments in it do not intersect, despite being displaced across a 1D axis
 
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That's not really the point of this conversation. Look at the the image Utima shared, the two line segments in it do not intersect, despite being displaced across a 1D axis
You mean this one that he literally say wouldn't be possible???
which wouldn't be possible if they stood side-by-side in 1-D space as in here,

Then i think you taking wrong interpretation on what ultima say. He literally mean a parallel lines, that you must have a flat plane for placed them
 
You mean this one that he literally say wouldn't be possible???
You missed a VERY crucial part of his statement, which I even underlined. He said it wouldn't be possible IF the line segments are extended infinitely (he doesn't say this verbatim but that's essentially what he means) without a 2D plane, no one disagrees with that. However, in that image you can clearly see two finite line segments displaced across a 1D axis and they aren't intersecting. That's the point.

Then i think you taking wrong interpretation on what ultima say. He literally mean a parallel lines, that you must have a flat plane for placed them
No, he means parallel lines that are extended as much as possible.
 
You missed a VERY crucial part of his statement, which I even underlined. He said it wouldn't be possible IF the line segments are extended infinitely (he doesn't say this verbatim but that's essentially what he means) without a 2D plane, no one disagrees with that. However, in that image you can clearly see two finite line segments displaced across a 1D axis and they aren't intersecting. That's the point.


No, he means parallel lines that are extended as much as possible.
Bruh.... He literally say the lines that acroos 1D axis not possible for be in higher order space. He literally say it must be parallel

I dont know whats exactly your problem in here
For two line segments to be parallel, YOU'D HAVE to set it so they wouldn't touch regardless of how far they are extended, which wouldn't be possible if they stood side-by-side in 1-D space as in here, meaning you would need them to be displaced over a plane.

No, he means parallel lines that are extended as much as possible.
Bruh he means it for the lines be parallel, the lines must be not intersect no matter how far they extended. The point is, just be parallel or not intersect
 
This is not true, even just by looking at the image Ultima shared in his comment, those two finite line segments are displace in a 1D axis, and they still do not intersect. Of course if you extend them, they will intersect, but that can be remedied by increasing the distance between them. If however you extend them infinitely, only then you do need a 2D plane to hold them without having them intersect.
They aren't parallel then? The upgrade is for objects that specifically do not intersect no matter how far you move along them. You seem to be hinging this on a definition of parallelism that doesn't even qualify on site.

Which is it? They are vastly different things. But if they are treated as infinite then, as I discussed in the OP, should make the space that holds them Low 1-C immediately. But this leads to the obvious problem of every 2-C verse being rated as Low 1-C, which is why I suggested a remedy that the universes should be infinite as well for this to work (as in, infinitely large). If you have another solution in mind, I'm all ears.
Here I do not know why the space would be Low 1-C automatically. A 4-dimensional object can be held in larger 4-dimensional space and even when such parallel bodies are displaced across 5-dimensional space, the latter's size isn't quantifiable without explicit statements.

"Two universes exist parallel to each other in the Abyss" won't make the Abyss Low 1-C cause the distance is unknown entirely for example.
We do, what I am proposing however is that this requirement likely (or at least should) stem from the fact that those 4D space-times are infinite, thus by-default needing an infinitely large 5D space to hold them (by using Ultima's "generalized" logic, you cannot draw an infinitely long parallel line segments across a finite 2D plane).
Personally, I view this proposal as needless pedantry, especially considering that we dont even have any size qualifiers for space-time continuums being Low 2-C so long as the 3-dimensional aspect is at least universal in size. Nor do we need them.

Course I may change my mind depending on further clarification by other staff about this.
 
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They aren't parallel then? The upgrade is for objects that specifically do not intersect no matter how far you move along them. You seem to be hinging this on a definition of parallelism that doesn't even qualify on site.
Why are they not? They are non-intersecting line segments. Of course if you do extend them infinitely you will need a 2D plane, an infinite 2D plane at that (again, try drawing infinitely long parallel line segments across a finite 2D plane). I define parallel, in the 1D case, as two non-intersecting line segments. If however, the definition used here is "two non-intersecting segments displaced across a 2D plane, forming the same angle against an arbitrary axis" then this conversation is moot since we are by-default starting with a plane (you need at least 2 dimensions to define an angle), but there is still the case of two infinitely long line segments needing to be displaced across an infinite 2D plane.
A 4-dimensional object can be held in larger 4-dimensional space
So you're saying 4D structure A can be held in a larger 4D space B, if space B is larger. But what if space A was an infinite 4D structure (since this is what you said space-times on wiki can thought to be).?

Personally, I view this proposal as needless pedantry, especially considering that we dont even have any qualifiers for space-time continuums so long as the 3-dimensional aspect is at least universal in size.

Course I may change my mind depending on further clarification by other staff about this.
Now I see the problem, we don't have a standard for what counts as a space-time continuum, as long as its universal in "size" and has a timelike dimension, basically minkowski space. If we had a more substantial and well-defined standard my argument may have made more sense then and seemed less pedantic. One thing I should clear is that I am using Ultima's own logic here (I only pointed out its flaws just so we know it isn't flawless). You should think about how you will need an infinite sized 2D plane to draw infinite sized parallel line segments, now using Ultima's logic, what happens when this is extended to 4th and 5th dimensions?
 
Maybe I don't understand the topic of the debate right, but I think the confusion the OP has might come from not considering that we default to the assumption that a universe is the totality of 3 dimensional space.
By our standards, something that only occupies part of 3D space is no full universe.
Meanwhile, the time axis of a timeline is assumed to be infinite towards the future, albeit not necessarily towards the past.

Due to the latter factor you can not display two timelines in time so that they don't intersect.
Due to the former factor you can not displace a universe in 3D space so that it isn't touching another universe in 3D space. If you could, then neither of the universes would occupy all of 3D space.
Hence you need an extra axis to have several timelines, requiring a 5D space. Although that space can be of insignificant size in terms of 5D volume and hence is not by default assumed Tier 1.

Note that saying that a universe is all of 3D space isn't equivalent to saying it's infinite in size. Due to curvature of spacetime it is possible that the totality of 3D space in itself is finite in size.
 
Maybe I don't understand the topic of the debate right, but I think the confusion the OP has comes from not considering that we default to the assumption that a universe is the totality of 3 dimensional space.
By our standards, something that only occupies part of 3D space is no full universe.
Meanwhile, the time axis of a timeline is assumed to be infinite towards the future, albeit not necessarily towards the past.

Due to the latter factor you can not display two timelines in time so that they don't intersect.
Due to the former factor you can not displace a universe in 3D space so that it isn't touching another universe in 3D space. If you could, then neither of the universes would occupy all of 3D space.
Hence you need an extra axis to have several timelines, requiring a 5D space. Although that space can be of insignificant size in terms of 5D volume and hence is not by default assumed Tier 1.

Note that saying that a universe is all of 3D space isn't equivalent to saying it's infinite in size. Due to curvature of spacetime it is possible that the totality of 3D space in itself is finite in size.
Okay, that hits the nail regarding what universes are supposed to be here. I was under the assumption that they are your standard minkowskian spaces. With this in mind, Ultima's logic makes far more sense (and since I, you know, have done coursework where I have to abstract out this result, I am much more comfortable with it now)

Also your avatar blinked at nearly the same time as me and I freaked out
 
Meme break:
2Ak0z.jpg
 
Hence you need an extra axis to have several timelines, requiring a 5D space. Although that space can be of insignificant size in terms of 5D volume and hence is not by default assumed Tier 1.
Honestly i still extremely confused by this, if a space is already 5D and hold 4d object which 4d object on it own is significantly large structure, infinite, how the space hold them somehow not significant??, it seem contradictory and make no sense at all
 
Honestly i still extremely confused by this, if a space is already 5D and hold 4d object which 4d object on it own is significantly large structure, infinite, how the space hold them somehow not significant??, it seem contradictory and make no sense at all
Well just the 4D that significant, the 5D is insignificant. Like you can extended the 4D infinitely in 5D space, but the volume of 5D is still 0

Basically you need fully 5D space (universe) for get tier, like just destroy the planet even if it 3D that same as the universe will not make you have tier 3A, or affect the 4D planet still not make you low 2C
 
Honestly i still extremely confused by this, if a space is already 5D and hold 4d object which 4d object on it own is significantly large structure, infinite, how the space hold them somehow not significant??, it seem contradictory and make no sense at all
That’s exactly my point. You can‘t have an infinitely extending 1D line on a finite 2D plane, the 2D plane must also be infinite in at least one dimension. Extending this to the 4th dimension, a 4D space-time being infinite in any number of dimensions means that the 5D space holding it must ALSO be infinite in the same number of dimensions, thus making it significant.
 
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Also someone please tell Firestorm that the “geometric method” is not any different to the linear algebra definitions we seem to use on the wiki for stuff like this, in fact the latter is just an abstraction/generalization of the former.
 
Like you can extended the 4D infinitely in 5D space, but the volume of 5D is still 0
Proof????
Basically you need fully 5D space (universe) for get tier, like just destroy the planet even if it 3D that same as the universe will not make you have tier 3A, or affect the 4D planet still not make you low 2C
I didn't talking about 4D planet or something similar, but a significant 4D structure such as universal space-time continuum
 
Also if the volume of 5D space is 0, then it is not 5D, I don’t know where that ridiculous standard comes from. Imagine a parallelepiped where all of its vectors are coplanar. Now you can call it a parallelepiped if you want, but if you try to calculate it’s volume, it’ll be 0, because the Coplanar condition turned it into a 2D parallelogram instead of a 3D parallelepiped
 
Proof????

I didn't talking about 4D planet or something similar, but a significant 4D structure such as universal space-time continuum
This is just how we treat a multiverse space, no matter how big the universe in that space it not will make the space is same like that, or every 2C space will definitely have low 1C rating by default

Bruh it just a example
 
Maybe I don't understand the topic of the debate right, but I think the confusion the OP has might come from not considering that we default to the assumption that a universe is the totality of 3 dimensional space.
By our standards, something that only occupies part of 3D space is no full universe.
Meanwhile, the time axis of a timeline is assumed to be infinite towards the future, albeit not necessarily towards the past.

Due to the latter factor you can not display two timelines in time so that they don't intersect.
Due to the former factor you can not displace a universe in 3D space so that it isn't touching another universe in 3D space. If you could, then neither of the universes would occupy all of 3D space.
Hence you need an extra axis to have several timelines, requiring a 5D space. Although that space can be of insignificant size in terms of 5D volume and hence is not by default assumed Tier 1.

Note that saying that a universe is all of 3D space isn't equivalent to saying it's infinite in size. Due to curvature of spacetime it is possible that the totality of 3D space in itself is finite in size.
I think what he means is that stand side by side, with a gap between them. (That is, they extend on the same axis along the 4th axis, with only gaps between them)

For example, within a infinite 1D line, you can draw multiple smaller 1D lines side by side with gaps between them, there is no need for a 2D plane for this.
Also if the volume of 5D space is 0, then it is not 5D, I don’t know where that ridiculous standard comes from. Imagine a parallelepiped where all of its vectors are coplanar. Now you can call it a parallelepiped if you want, but if you try to calculate it’s volume, it’ll be 0, because the Coplanar condition turned it into a 2D parallelogram instead of a 3D parallelepiped
This is wrong(actually not completely) , you may have a 5th axis space that is infinite in size, but this does not mean that your 5th axis is very large or infinite. In this case, your volume on the 5th axis will be negligible, and yes, if a space can hold more than one parallel universe within it without intersecting each other, what is needed for this is the 5th axis(extra vertical axis), where the universes will have 0 volume. But, this axis is generally a trivial axis/volume, so it is not Tier 1.
 
Honestly i still extremely confused by this, if a space is already 5D and hold 4d object which 4d object on it own is significantly large structure, infinite, how the space hold them somehow not significant??, it seem contradictory and make no sense at all
You might have a 5th axis space that contains infinite 4-dimensional universes and ensures they don't intersect, but that doesn't mean your 5th axis is infinite or very large, it just means your 4th axis is significantly larger or infinite.

Your 5th axis is still insignificant sized and that it doesn't scale.
 
Btw is this statement below correct ?



So in every dimension (1D, 2D, 3D, 4D, 5D...etc) there are finite space and infinite space. Time is infinite 4D (DT explanation)

in 2D (X,Y) and 1D (X) for example

(X) can contain (X)
(X,Y) can contain (X)
(X,Y) can contain (2 or 3 or 4)
(2, Y) can't contain (X)
(X,2) can contain (X) , this is finite 2D space and eventually infinite 1D will get intersect with each other if multiple infinite 1D moving around in finite 2D space.


so is space between infinite 4D is 5D ? yes but it's probably zero 5D or small 5D . Low 1-C need infinite 5D.

So can finite 5D contain infinite 4D ? sure, yes if infinite 4D only in same infinite 4D axis. If infinite 4D moving around in finite 5D. Multiple infinite 4D will get intersect with each other.
 
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Btw is this statement below correct ?



So in every dimension (1D, 2D, 3D, 4D, 5D...etc) there are finite space and infinite space. Time is infinite 4D (DT explanation)

in 2D (X,Y) and 1D (X) for example

(X) can contain (X)
(X,Y) can contain (X)
(X,Y) can contain (2 or 3 or 4)
(2, Y) can't contain (X)
(X,2) can contain (X) , this is finite 2D space and eventually 1D will get intersect with each other if multiple 1D moving around in finite 2D space.


so is space between infinite 4D is 5D ? yes but it's probably zero 5D or small 5D . Low 1-C need infinite 5D.

So can finite 5D contain infinite 4D ? sure, yes if infinite 4D only in same infinite 4D axis. If infinite 4D moving around in finite 5D. Multiple infinite 4D will get intersect with each other.
This is wrong(well i guess but not completely), for example, a space with a negligible 5th axis can contain more than one infinite 4-D universe. Even if this 5th axis has a negligible sized, infinite universes don't intersect with each other because they "always" have 0 volume on this negligible axis, because they have no 5th axis, only 4 axes.

Btw, in order to accommodate these infinite-sized universes, the 5th axis may be insignificant, but the 4th axis of space must be infinite.(So, 4 axes and space must be infinite)
 
This is wrong(well i guess but not completely), for example, a space with a negligible 5th axis can contain more than one infinite 4-D universe.
i agree, (X,1) can contain more than one infinite (X).

Even if this 5th axis has a negligible sized, infinite universes don't intersect with each other because they "always" have 0 volume on this negligible axis, because they have no 5th axis, only 4 axes.
so in (X,2) multiple infinite 1D don't intersect with each other because they always have 0 volume on Y axis ? because they have no 2th axis only 1 axis ?

upss intersect is not accurate word but i guess overlap ?? Multiple infinite 1D can overlap with each other.
 
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i agree, (X,1) can contain more than one infinite (X).


so in (X,2) multiple infinite 1D don't intersect with each other because they always have 0 volume on Y axis ? because they have no 2th axis only 1 axis ?

upss intersect is not accurate word but i guess overlap ?? Multiple 1D can overlap with each other.
Yes, that's true, but in order to hold infinite 1D line, its 1D axis must also be infinite.
 
So infinite 1D can move around in 4 axis direction right ?

4D = (X,Y,Z,D)
1D = (X, 0,0,0)

so if 1D moving around in 4D spaces
1D = (X,0,0,0)
1D = (0,Y,0,0)
1D = (0,0,Z,0)
1D = (0,0,0,D)

is this also correct ?


edit : 2D in 3D space

2D = (X,Y,0)
2D = (0,Y,Z)
2D = (X,0,Z)
 
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