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2-A's "Above Baseline" standard
- Thread starter ProfessorKukui4Life
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Pritti agrees with Multiple Multiverse busting being higher than baseline iirc
Kukui says it's not
Not sure about Andy
Kukui says it's not
Not sure about Andy
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I'm afraid I haven't been following where the conversation headed since last time.
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So basically, the judge for 2-A feats is quality over quantity.
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- Thread starter
- #248
Yep. How casual you perform a 2-A feat and scaling chains above someone who is 2-A should be the only methods used to determine whats above baseline 2-A.Dragonmasterxyz said:
At least thats what me, Sera, AKM and Pritti agree with.
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I can agree with that mindset.
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- Thread starter
- #250
@Cal do you agree with this?
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If a verse actually establishes multiple sets of multiverses to be harder to destroy than a single one, such as by making one 2-A character incapable of destroying more than one set, then scaling through number of multiverses is fine as well
Apart from that I agree with Kukui
Apart from that I agree with Kukui
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My badSera EX said:
Wokistan
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I haven't had time to actually argue this, but what's the stance on an infinity of infinities type thing? Like a quote I have that says an infinite multiverse Is just an infinitely small part of a much larger and more powerful whole? Is the argument still about this sort of thing as well, or only about non infinite times baseline 2-A?
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"x <<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<< y <<<<<<<< z = a <<<<<<<< b" intensifies
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Assuming that each of the spheres is an infinite multiverse, why would destroying only 1 be as good as a feat as destroying all 6 of them ?
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@AKM
No, that's just Infinity^2
No, that's just Infinity^2
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Because they are all infinite. Simple as that.Overlord775 said:
Assuming that each of the spheres is an infinite multiverse, why would destroying only 1 be as good as a feat as destroying all 6 of them ?
And you are comparing objects of finite sizes within their dimensional plane to infinite ones.
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Dungeons and Dragons says hi
That's almost litterally how infinite space-times are rappresented there
That's almost litterally how infinite space-times are rappresented there
Wokistan
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This would seem to imply 2-B being equivalent to Low 2-C because 123873 infinite universes is the same as 1 via them all being infinity, which does not seem to be the standard currently used.DMB 1 said:
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@DMB1 It's an example, some fiction show infinite multiverses as finite from external view.
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If a verse contains multiple 2-A multiverses they gotta start and end somewhere even if they all have infinite universes.
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Galactus is infinite^ infinite above baseline iirc, and is still 2-A
Wokistan
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They don't have to be finite in a 4D scale though. Take timeline feats where time's equated to a dimension in a way that lets individual ones scale to Low 2-C. We don't instantly be like "oh looks like this one timeline is 2-A because that axis is also infinite".
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Oh yeah that's what I was agreeing with.
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Because 6 times aleph null is still aleph null. Even if you raise infinity to any power that is not infinite, it will still be the same.Overlord775 said:
Assuming that each of the spheres is an infinite multiverse, why would destroying only 1 be as good as a feat as destroying all 6 of them ?
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Or just being infinitely stronger than a 2-B doesn't give you 2-A.
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You do realize that you are saying that 1=6, right ?AKM sama said:Because 6 times aleph null is still aleph null. Even if you raise infinity to any power that is not infinite, it will still be the same.Overlord775 said:
Assuming that each of the spheres is an infinite multiverse, why would destroying only 1 be as good as a feat as destroying all 6 of them ?
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So basically this thread in a nutshell: "You shouldn't assume destroying multiple infinities is superior to 1 infinity unless the verse say it is."
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Than Aleph Null shouldn't be usedAKM sama said:
as it clearly defies logic and physic
Saying 1=6 is madness, as it's going against any basic princible of things
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So I guess by this logic 0.3... going on forever is the same as 0.3... going on forever followed by 4... going on forever because both are infinite even though one set encompasses the other, right?
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