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2-A's "Above Baseline" standard

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I'm would've been sure all those verses who claim to be infinitely above baseline get affected by this tho. Upwards to and including SMT.
 
SMT shows a clear difference between destroying an Iinfinite number of universes and destroying an infinite infinite number of universes, so no, it wouldn't affect the verse
 
Obviously not directly. I can't think of many verses that haven't directly had some superiority between countable infinities on the same dimensional level.
 
So... i been try8ing to read this thrad.. but been getting a headache doing it lol...

Was there any conclusion reached, if so then what was it???
 
ShadowWarrior1999 said:
If a verse contains multiple 2-A multiverses they gotta start and end somewhere even if they all have infinite universes.
No, they could just not be infinite on all axes.

Imagine, if you will, an infinite log. It extends infinitely across, yet its height and depth are finite. A verse could have multiple of these infinite logs and have them not interact with each other by simply stacking them on top of each other.
 
No, they could just not be infinite on all axes.

Imagine, if you will, an infinite log. It extends infinitely across, yet its height and depth are finite. A verse could have multiple of these infinite logs and have them not interact with each other by simply stacking them on top of each other.

Suppose it depends if you interpret a multiverse as being flat or spherical.
 
I'm not sure if Archie Sonic should be downgraded.

In the case of Archie, Mega's multiverse is in by no means part of Sonic's infinite set of universes. It's far more logical to believe that affecting Sonic and Mega-Man's multiverses is more impressive than affecting just one or the other, than it is to believe it isn't.

I'd say if the series just says there's infinite^infinite universes of just expressing how "endlessly infinite" a multiverse is, it doesn't count as above baseline.

That's just my opinion though. There's no right answer here.
 
Archie sonic had something else going on with being some arbitrary number of times baseline because thousands of chaos emeralds got fused into 7. I already don't agree with that but i'd think something like this would be more downgradable.
 
I know what it stands for. What my point is that, beyond what it stands for, it shouldn't mean that its more difficult to destroy than a single 2-A structure.
 
For example. The Dark Multiverse where the regular one is a "speck in the dark ocean" so very small in comparison although having infinite universes.
 
EmperorRorepme said:
There's also "metaverse" in DC which is like an infinite multiverse created after every quantum moment or something.
I thought the metaverse was what Dr Manhattan called the main universe because when he messed with its history he affected every other connected multiverse, dark multiverse, etc causing new 52
 
EmperorRorepme said:
It should if it's treated as larger than the "regular multiverse" which is the point.
The thing is, like what Andy was pointing out earlier, it being larger than the regular multiverse doesnt auto make it above baseline 2-A. It being said to be more difficult to destroy than the regular multiverse is what would make it above baseline.
 
ProfessorKukui4Life said:
The thing is, like what Andy was pointing out earlier, it being larger than the regular multiverse doesnt auto make it above baseline 2-A. It being said to be more difficult to destroy than the regular multiverse is what would make it above baseline.
I don't entirely agree with this. That would be asking writers to be much too specific about something that only matters to us.

If the magnitude of the 2-A structure is denoted as somehow superior to another 2-A structure, that should be enough. Most writers aren't gonna think in terms of "harder to", since the size already gives that idea.

Even going off our usual guideline to not give author intent much of a thought, I see no reason why a "bigger size" wouldn't denote some level of superiority.
 
TheUpgradeManHaHaxD said:
What if the multiverses are separated?
The only way I can see this being "logically" possible is this:

Imagine if an Infinite Multiverse was essentially a line of infinite Universes. therefore, with Infinite "length", but nothing else. I know it's rather odd to measure a 4D structure with length, but this is just an example.

Thus, multiple ones of those lines would be multiple multiverses.

Would it be more impressive to bust multiple ones instead of just one? Once again, I don't think so, unless there would be infinite of those lines, thus making some kind of infinite multiversal "plane" (again, this is just an example), since you'd go into the degrees of infinity.
 
Wokistan said:
EmperorRorepme said:
There's also "metaverse" in DC which is like an infinite multiverse created after every quantum moment or something.
I thought the metaverse was what Dr Manhattan called the main universe because when he messed with its history he affected every other connected multiverse, dark multiverse, etc causing new 52
That was probably from a different storyline to what I was talking about.
 
ProfessorKukui4Life said:
EmperorRorepme said:
It should if it's treated as larger than the "regular multiverse" which is the point.
The thing is, like what Andy was pointing out earlier, it being larger than the regular multiverse doesnt auto make it above baseline 2-A. It being said to be more difficult to destroy than the regular multiverse is what would make it above baseline.
It does, superior structure or higher cardinality of infinities is already going beyond your mathematical logic. So you can't apply your mathematical logic "infinity is infinity" if that's already the case. I disagree with this whole thing anyway but eh idc.
 
We've been overthinking this long enough. It's not like any verses are being downgraded by this anyway.

Infinite^Infinite multiverses (for example, infinite universes each with infinite timelines) is not "above baseline" because of it's vagueness. Again, as Pritti stated, the more endlessly infinite" a multiverse is doesn't make it above baseline.

However, in the case of a megaverse/metaverse, omniverse, or any other higher ensemble of multiverses, it's more often than not superior than your average set of infinite universes.

Come on, we're really arguing if destroying a "megaverse" is superior to destroying a multiverse in Marvel. Yeah, destroying what Marvel clearly defines as a higher magnitude of infinite multiverses is equal to destroying just infinite universes.

If we're going to be that technical why even use higher dimensions and higher magnitudes of infinity? Because "size"? It'd a terrible argument appealing to the lowest common denominator in our circle of influence - the oh-so infamous "i am very smart" crew.

Also, there exists multiversal classification systems ranked by "superiority" and even the most basic multiverse can have as little as two and at most infinite universes.

This "but you're just adding infinity" argument needs to stop. We're really starting to behave like we're experts in the field. We aren't. We're over 350 replies and still we're arguing about semantics and techniaities.
 
Not so relevant to your post, Sera, but infinite universes each with infinite timelines is only infinite^2. The concept of characters destroying "infinite^infinite" things is grossly overstated and just about never happens in any fiction.
 
It happens in any verse with "megaversal" structures. I.e. Marvel, DC, SMT, Umineko (from a certain perspective), among others.

You could argue it isn't really infinite^infinite, but if we're going by statements over demonstration which we love so much, then yes it is.

A lot of crap is overstated but is take literally. Two very infamous examples being

1. X is to Y what Y is to an ordinary human

2. This guy sees this verse as fiction.

We still treat those seriously.
 
Sera's right. The original point of this thread in the first place was made clear and was accepted. So this thread can be closed now.
 
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