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Voldemort then tries to possess him, and succeeds.

Risotto can't permanently kill Voldemort; I doubt he could even incapacitate him. If Voldemort lands basically anything, he's dead.
 
Concealment charms can't be used like that, but transmutation was used by Glinderwart to do that.

And IIRC, Voldemort only possesed qQuirrel after he sought him out and tried to subjugate him, it's not something he can just do post deth as far as I know.
 
To be fair, that was when he had his soul torn from his body. I strongly doubt having his throat ripped open is going to cause him to dematerialize for like a decade.

He also has telepathy and uses it off the bat in-character; he'll know everything Risotto can do and before he does it. Hell, he can just use it to break his mind and drive him insane.
 
Voldemort waxes.

Telepathy is already a hilarious advantage. Add that to him having numerous ways to kill or incap, including some that are just flat out unavoidable (see: mindhax, Imperio, Fiendfyre, Crucio) and this match is his to win.

Also, possessing people on death is definitely something he can do. Even when he was disembodied, he was possessing rats and snakes and other animals in order to move from place to place. There's nothing stopping him from doing the same thing here.
 
Ricsi-viragosi said:
Concealment charms can't be used like that, but transmutation was used by Glinderwart to do that.

And IIRC, Voldemort only possesed Quirrel after he sought him out and tried to subjugate him, it's not something he can just do post death as far as I know.
You're right, but a disillusionment charm can - considering Draco and his goons could do it to hide outside the room of requirement, Voldemort certainly can - Dumbledore himself said that his knowledge of magic was likely the most extensive of any wizard in the world - and, c'mon, it's Crabbe and Goyle (though I suppose Draco could've cast it for them himself).

Voldemort was known to possess animals during his time in Albania.

Anyway, Voldemort wins for reasons stated above.

Edit: Disillusionment was said in OOTP to simply camouflage, not create true invisibility - and the books take precedence over anything else (Wonderbook: Book of Spells states it does create true invisibility). However, Dumbledore was using one to stay invisible, in his own words - "I don't need a cloak to become invisible"

He also later states that he and Grindelwald, as well as Voldemort, did not need the Cloak of Invisibility - they could hide themselves just as well without it.

So perhaps only exceptionally powerful wizards can cause true invisibility without a cloak? Either way it's not necessary for the fight.
 
Voldemort becoming invisible in a battle like that isn't something he'd do.

And there is a pretty big difference between possesing animals and humans. If he could just posses someone just after he dies, he sure as hell doesn't seem willing to actually do it.
 
Theglassman12 said:
Except he did do that to Quirrel in the first book.
Yes.

And I already pointed out that Quirrel seeked him out Voldemort.

Like, Voldemort wanted to get in hogwarts, as shown by the fact that he took Quirrels body as soon as he got to know he was a teacher there, but Voldemort never got to posses anyone that didn't actievely find him. It also makes no sense if he could just posses whoever whenever he gets beaten.
 
How does a person actively finding Voldemort change the fact that he CAN possess people?

How would it not make sense tho? The only person that was alive when he lost was Harry, and he was already a Horcrux when the spell reflected. So he had no one to possess at the time.
 
Searching for him and initiating contact does change a lot.

And that isn't the only time he could posses someone before being beat. Possesing people at any point would have helped massively.


It's less if he can, and more if he would, because harry potter is so ridden with IC that I could make a plan to make both sides win 10 times out of 10 in five minutes.
 
That would help if he didn't know where risotto is in the first place. AKA a person he'd already know where he's at and doesn't have any way to get out of possession from a non-corporeal being.

I'm not arguing on him possessing before, I'm arguing he would possess AFTER. Before he wouldn't even bother considering he has his own body and has other spells to incapacitate or kill.

Aaaaand how does that at all change the fact that Voldemort can possess when he's a ghost?
 
It changes that he never once possesed something as a ghost without the thing going to him.

We have no idea how much control he has, beyond knowing that it isn't much, and we can't assume he'll just go up to risotto and posses him.


Because he should have done stuff like that in canon, biit he didn't.
 
And as a stand user, he should be able to just smack away Voldemort, since all stand users can interact with ghosts to an extent because spiritual mumbo jumbo.
 
And, as noted above, that doesn't stop Voldemort from possessing him afterwards.

It also doesn't stop him from nonverbally mindhaxing him into the ground right away. Which he'll do, since SBA puts them at hundreds of meters. (AKA Voldemort's mental attack range.)
 
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