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Removal of God of War's "Type 1 Concept Manipulation"

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If I may (and my comment can be deleted if not allowed as an ex-staff member), it seems to me you are under the impression that the Norse Pantheon and Greek reside within the same multiverse, and thus are under the same "reality". This is not the case. Each pantheon govern their own reality, and are simply able to travel to another within their "omniverse" (or however you want to call it). Each pantheon has their own conceptions that pertain to their specific world, with only Chaos being beyond everything iirc.

That may be where the conflict lies there.
I understand what you mean, but I'll try to organize my thoughts better:

To start, it's not clear to me whether or not the phrase "all of reality" in our CM standards refers to an entire fictional setting, full stop, or if it can be justified through some kind of separation between two sections of the same fiction (other than, perhaps, R>F transcendence). Second, if it is the case that there can be two Type 1 Concepts of the same thing in a verse, it is unclear to me what kind of a separation is needed.

Moreover, defining that separation with terminology like "reality" "universe" "multiverse" "omniverse" "realm" "existence" etc. is essentially impossible because the meanings of these terms mean something different everywhere you go. One man's universe is another man's multiverse is another man's omniverse. And finally, the fact that Kratos managed to travel to Midgard suggests to me that the separation between them is likely not such that we could justify that, but since I'm not clear on what the standard is, I can't really say yet.
 
I understand what you mean, but I'll try to organize my thoughts better:

To start, it's not clear to me whether or not the phrase "all of reality" in our CM standards refers to an entire fictional setting, full stop, or if it can be justified through some kind of separation between two sections of the same fiction (other than, perhaps, R>F transcendence). Second, if it is the case that there can be two Type 1 Concepts of the same thing in a verse, it is unclear to me what kind of a separation is needed.

Moreover, defining that separation with terminology like "reality" "universe" "multiverse" "omniverse" "realm" "existence" etc. is essentially impossible because the meanings of these terms mean something different everywhere you go. One man's universe is another man's multiverse is another man's omniverse. And finally, the fact that Kratos managed to travel to Midgard suggests to me that the separation between them is likely not such that we could justify that, but since I'm not clear on what the standard is, I can't really say yet.
The "came on a boat" argument is something that's been addressed repeatedly since 2019. I am happy to do that again but this feels like trying to question an entirely unrelated aspect of the verse from the topic at hand.

There's a whole section on separation that talks about it in the Explanation page.
 
The "came on a boat" argument is something that's been addressed repeatedly since 2019. I am happy to do that again but this feels like trying to question an entirely unrelated aspect of the verse from the topic at hand.

There's a whole section on separation that talks about it in the Explanation page.
I didn't mention a boat. My point is that Kratos' ability to reach Midgard at all is indicative to me that the separation may not be as absolute as what might be required for there to be two Type 1 Concepts. However, that depends on if such a thing is permissible at all and under what circumstances.
 
Ultima got back to me on Discord. It would seem that we do indeed tend to let identical Type 1 Concepts co-exist in a fiction with relatively limited separation. As in, according to Ultima, it could be the case that a multiverse has a different "Death" for each individual universe and we'd still let each one be Type 1 in theory.

Really not a fan of that, given the wording on the CM page, but that's beyond the scope of this thread. In any case, that section of my response to Pepsiman can be disregarded.
 
Don't expect me to leave an evaluation on this thread, because I really don't want to go down this rabbit hole, but I'll be keeping track of the votes, at the very least.

Current Tally-

Agree: Antvasima, Mr. Bambu, Firestorm808, Deagonx, CrimsonStarFallen
Disagree:
DarkGrath, Elizhaa, LordGriffin1000, Planck69, Theglassman12, KingTempest, DemonGodMitchAubin, Emirp sumitpo, AbbadonTheDisappointment
Neutral: DarkDragonMedeus

As per usual, bolded names indicate evaluating staff. If you need your position changed, feel free to let me know
Le update, since the thread's been quiet for some time
 
@Firestorm808 I assume you agree with concept hax being a thing for god of war then if it needs a better justification then?
Comparing the site standard to the following justifications, I do not.

1. Independent Universal Concepts: Such concepts are completely independent from the part of reality they govern, except maybe of other concepts of this nature. These concepts shape all of reality within their area of influence and at whatever level that area exists in, and everything in it "participates" in these concepts. For example, a circular object is circular because it is "participating" in the concept of "circle-ness". In this way, the alteration of these concepts will change every object of the concept across all of their area of influence, while the opposite wouldn't affect the concept.

I do not see examples of the definition of the concepts being altered or manipulated, changing the definition of all objects derived from that concept.

IE: I swapped the circle concept to a square, and all circle objects became square objects.
 
Entirely forgot about this.

It's been several days since the last comment prior to Firestorm's, it seems likely Ultima isn't coming. If he is (or if someone else is), he can just re-open it. Even with Firestorm's vote, the voting is significantly weighed enough towards Disagree to close.

Still, I'll wait for the immediate discussion to end, since Glass seems intent on pursuing it.
 
I do not see examples of the definition of the concepts being altered or manipulated, changing the definition of all objects derived from that concept.
This is a good point that got lost in the weeds during the discussion about whether the Primordials were concepts.

When discussing it with Ultima he pointed out that -- at face value -- the interactions between Gods don't appear to justify CM even if they are concepts, because the applications of CM (destroying/creating/altering concepts) don't seem to occur, because the explanation provided for why nothing happens to the world, despite these battles ending in the death of gods/primordials, is that the "concept" immediately transfers ownership or something like that (not really sure, it's sort of being provided ad-hoc to justify Earth being fine when Gaia dies.) So no creating, destroying, or altering.

The principle behind Concept Manip is that the world is affected through the user's ability to manipulate the concepts that substantiate everything. This never occurs in the series.
 
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