Jinsye
She/Her- 10,455
- 1,538
So here's an idea.
Character A is capable of manipulating the type 1 concept of time/causality/whatnot.
Would this be enough to interact with a type 5 acausal? As far as I can see, the reason why we don't treat type 1 conceptual manipulation as bypassing type 5 acausality is due to the way the Conceptual Manipulation page is currently written.
But, if the type 1 concept is of time/causality, wouldn't the concept be separated from time and causality by default and thus be type 5 acausal? I find it pretty silly that we would assume that the type 1 concept of time/causality would still be bound by time/causality, because our standards state specifically that they need to be completely independent of the part of reality they govern. Thus, the concept would be independent of all time/causal systems like a type 5 acausal would be.
So, what's up with that?
Character A is capable of manipulating the type 1 concept of time/causality/whatnot.
Would this be enough to interact with a type 5 acausal? As far as I can see, the reason why we don't treat type 1 conceptual manipulation as bypassing type 5 acausality is due to the way the Conceptual Manipulation page is currently written.
A type 1 concept simply needs to be independent of the part of reality they govern, which does not necessarily indicate being separate from time/causality in the same sense a type 5 acausal is.1. Independent Universal Concepts: Such concepts are completely independent from the part of reality they govern. These concepts shape all of reality within their area of influence and at whatever level that area exists in, and everything in it "participates" in these concepts. For example, a circular object is circular because it is "participating" in the concept of "circle-ness". In this way, the alteration of these concepts will change every object of the concept across all of their area of influence, while the opposite wouldn't affect the concept.
But, if the type 1 concept is of time/causality, wouldn't the concept be separated from time and causality by default and thus be type 5 acausal? I find it pretty silly that we would assume that the type 1 concept of time/causality would still be bound by time/causality, because our standards state specifically that they need to be completely independent of the part of reality they govern. Thus, the concept would be independent of all time/causal systems like a type 5 acausal would be.
So, what's up with that?