About uncountably infinite universes

[GreatIskandar14045]

1. What's a good analogy to explain an infinite^infinite 4D plane equate to 5D plane? Will "0^0 = 1" works?
Since I heard the innacessible difference between lower and higher dimensions is like 0 to 1, which the 0 being the non-existent of extra spatial axis.

2. What an uncountably infinite 4D universes falls into Low 1-C? Baseline or infinite baseline?

 

[Planck69]

1. Pretty sure even that is still 2-A but I may be wrong.

2. Baseline Low 1-C.

 

[Planck69]

Bump

Please don't bump stuff posted literally minutes ago.

 

[GreatIskandar14045]

1. Pretty sure even that is still 2-A but I may be wrong.

2. Baseline Low 1-C.

Well this what Agnaa said from here.

Infinitely many infinite multiverses isn't infinite^infinite, it's infinite*infinite, or infinite^2, which is not a higher cardinality. EDIT: There needs to be an infinite collection of larger and larger collections of infinite timelines, then multiverses, then multiverses of multiverses, and so on infinitely, to be infinite^infinite and reach Low 1-C in that way.

 

[Planck69]

Huh, OK then.

 

[Greenshifter]

Yeah I ****** up big time in that thread. infinite^infinite has the same cardinality as 2^infinite which is the power set (set of all possible permutations of another set) of a countable infinity and thus by definition gives an uncountable infinity. Not sure about the 0^0 analogy though, the way I explained it is probably the easiest way.

Like Planck said an uncountable infinity is just baseline, having the same cardinality means they are equally as big, so AP-wise it'll be the same and range-wise there probably isn't a big difference if one at all.