Question About Smurf Hax

[Mad_Dog_of_Fujiwara]

So if a person's magic is directly governed by a 4D/low 2-C plane, is described as a force that unifies different worlds, and the source of their magic (like mana, for example) is able to travel across space-times freely, would that make the potency of that magic 4D?

 

[ImmortalDread]

I don't see how it is related to potency, I more over interpret this as some type of omnipresence.

 

[Mad_Dog_of_Fujiwara]

I mean

Being omnipresent across a low 2-C space would make you 4D by default, though.

 

[ImmortalDread]

I mean

Being omnipresent across a low 2-C space would make you 4D by default, though.

No, the potency is not related to your state of being.

It's like equating your HDE to your potency.

 

[Mad_Dog_of_Fujiwara]

No, the potency is not related to your state of being.

It's like equating your HDE to your potency.

So according to you, using something that is 4D as an attack doesn't mean the attack is 4D? Can you explain, please?

 

[ImmortalDread]

That something is 4D as in nature.

Omnipresence and 4D range won't give you any potency because they are not factors for calculating potency to begin with.

 

[Mad_Dog_of_Fujiwara]

That something is 4D as in nature.

Omnipresence and 4D range won't give you any potency because they are not factors for calculating potency to begin with.

So something that unifies worlds would, under your logic, be 4D.

But using that thing in an attack is not 4D, because it's omnipresent, even though the omnipresent thing itself is what's being used as an attack.

As usual, I wish I knew what the hell you're on about.

 

[ImmortalDread]

I never clarified the first one as 4D.

What I stated is, that traveling across space-time continuum freely could be 4D range omnipresence.

Once again, why would this be any factor for potency?

 

[Mad_Dog_of_Fujiwara]

So you just straight up ignored 2/3rds of my post, cool.

 

[Tony_di_bugalu]

So if a person's magic is directly governed by a 4D/low 2-C plane, is described as a force that unifies different worlds, and the source of their magic (like mana, for example) is able to travel across space-times freely, would that make the potency of that magic 4D?

I think as long as that shit affects the whole plane it gets the 4D part

 

[ImmortalDread]

So you just straight up ignored 2/3rds of my post, cool.

Because they are not related to any factors of determining potency.

Hell the first one and second one proves more that the feat is 4D range omnipresence and third one confirms it.

 

[Magicomethkuon]

So if a person's magic is directly governed by a 4D/low 2-C plane, is described as a force that unifies different worlds, and the source of their magic (like mana, for example) is able to travel across space-times freely, would that make the potency of that magic 4D?

Qualitatively speaking I feel like it would be 4D, but potency-wise it would need feats showing that the character is always employing the entire source. Thinking of it in mundane ways, even if you had water reserves deep as the ocean, you can only get so much of it to come out of the kitchen sink at once.

 

[Mad_Dog_of_Fujiwara]

Qualitatively speaking I feel like it would be 4D, but potency-wise it would need feats showing that the character is always employing the entire source. Thinking of it in mundane ways, even if you had water reserves deep as the ocean, you can only get so much of it to come out of the kitchen sink at once.

Thank you, I'll keep this in mind.

 

[Planck69]

So if a person's magic is directly governed by a 4D/low 2-C plane, is described as a force that unifies different worlds, and the source of their magic (like mana, for example) is able to travel across space-times freely, would that make the potency of that magic 4D?

If the magic itself is responsible has a feat on that scale, like making/fusing higher-dimensional constructs or the like, then sure.