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Can be this a Low 1-A Structure?

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Basically, If There is a infinite multiverse, where each universe is a High 1-B Structure. Then, it would be a Super High 1-B or a Low 1-A?
Thanks for the answers.
 
But, in the page of Tiering System, a Low 1-A is:

Characters who can universally affect, create and/or destroy structures and expanses of uncountably infinite dimensions, or which have a size roughly analogous to them, such as uncountably infinite sets of hierarchical layers or planes of existence, most specifically ones whose amount of layers is comparable to the set of all real numbers, and are thus equated to the first uncountably infinite cardinal, ℵ1, for simplicity's sake.

Alternatively, this tier can also be assigned to characters who transcend High 1-B structures when no further context regarding the nature of such transcendence is given.
 
yeah, nowhere does it say that an infinite multiverse with infinite universes each of which are high 1-B is low 1-A.

Dimensions here are spatial and temporal dimensions.
 
Infinite High 1-B is still High 1-B, just infinitely higher than baseline. Because Infinite High 1-B is just Infinite*Infinite. In order to be Low 1-A it need to be uncountable infinite or infinite^infinite
 
If there infinite Multiverse which each universe have High 1-B structure it's would be Infinite x Infinite and that's right High 1-B.
 
I don't think the term of infinite*infinite is objectively correct, just imagine the baseline High 1-B is an infinite-dimensional universe, if there's an infinite amount of them then their difference would be like Low 2-C vs 2-A, an unquantifiable level of superiority (because we can't exactly quantify the distance between universes). It's still High 1-B though.
 
I don't think the term of infinite*infinite is objectively correct, just imagine the baseline High 1-B is an infinite-dimensional universe, if there's an infinite amount of them then their difference would be like Low 2-C vs 2-A, an unquantifiable level of superiority (because we can't exactly quantify the distance between universes). It's still High 1-B though.
Huh, 1 High 1-B is infinite dimension on itself, there are infinite amount of High 1-B, thus it is Infinite*(High 1-B) = Infinite*Infinite
 
Huh, 1 High 1-B is infinite dimension on itself, there are infinite amount of High 1-B, thus it is Infinite*(High 1-B) = Infinite*Infinite
Infinite*infinite High 1-B would be like an infinite*infinite amount of dimensions, which is still infinite. Because infinite is still countable, you can biject infinite*infinite with infinite with Cantor's diagonal argument. Saying infinite universes of High 1-B = infinite*infinite is kind of weird, since that's like saying 2-A is infinite*4 or infinite*(Low 2-C). Infinite dimensions isn't High 1-B and 4 dimensions isn't Low 2-C, anyway.
 
Infinite High 1-B is still High 1-B, just infinitely higher than baseline. Because Infinite High 1-B is just Infinite*Infinite. In order to be Low 1-A it need to be uncountable infinite or infinite^infinite
I know this is kinda old but isn't it infinite^2?
 
2^infinite =/= infinite^2

You confusing ^ with x
Indeed infinite x 2 = 2 x infinite but ^ is way different
Anyways in a word of infinite it would be infinite^infinite? I heard you do it like 2^infinite + in the continuum hypothesis it was something like that except in a form of a aleph, can you clarify some stuff for me?
 
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2^infinite =/= infinite^2

You confusing ^ with x
Indeed infinite x 2 = 2 x infinite but ^ is way different
Since im pretty sure continuum hypothesis says Aleph null^2 is the correct phrase.
(i heard infinite^infinite is also valid but pretty sure this is the correct phrase.)
 
Anyways in a word of infinite it would be infinite^infinite? I heard you do it like 2^infinite + in the continuum hypothesis it was something like that except in a form of a aleph, can you clarify it to me?
Infinite^infinite = uncountable infinite which mean Aleph 1.
In continuum hypothesis, you can see it in wikipedia. It is long to say but it is 2^Aleph 0 = Aleph 1. Aleph 0 is countable infinite which is natural number
 
Infinite^infinite = uncountable infinite which mean Aleph 1.
In continuum hypothesis, you can see it in wikipedia. It is long to say but it is 2^Aleph 0 = Aleph 1. Aleph 0 is countable infinite which is natural number
Yeah ik that's why im asking if infinite^2 or aleph null^2 is valid since i heard it's the correct phrase of the continuum hypothesis.
(Literally in wikipedia.)

Or is infinite^2 invalid and Aleph null^2 are valid?

(Since im pretty sure this 2 is bassically the same thing.)
 
Aleph 0^2 =/= infinite^2. Aleph 0 is a set of natural number^2. Infinite is not a set of number
So i can't use the term infinite^2? But i can use aleph null^2? So i need to clarify it then?

So infinite^infinite and aleph null^2 for aleph1are the correct phrase then?
 
Im getting confused

The other guy said

2^infinity =/= aleph 1
2^Aleph null = aleph1
Infinite^infinite = aleph 1

And the other other guy said

2^Aleph null = aleph 1
2^Infinite = aleph 1
Infinite^infinite = aleph 1

From what i know it's

2^Aleph null and 2^infinity=Aleph1(in ch) but can anyone kind enough able to clarify this to me?

Since this is kinda going sideways.
 
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