I was already out of here, but I needed to reappear to answer that question (I was agonized, and since it's a holiday today I'll have time). The answer is simple: It depends.
It depends on whether you will treat omnipresence and omniscience in their original meanings, or the false omnipresence and omniscience shown in fiction. In their original concepts, omnipresence and omniscience are placed side by side with omnipotence itself, and they are not limited to dimensionality. "Omni-" is a prefix that doesn't allow exceptions in the divine attributes. If an entity is in everything, it is both in dimensionality and in the very "ontological nothingness" (here called "true void") that, although many here don't agree, is automatically beyond dimensionality; if there is something where the omnipresent isn't, then what he has isn't omnipresence but pseudo-omnipresence. Omniscience also works the same way, if there is something he doesn't know then he isn't omniscient. It doesn't matter if it is of a higher dimension.
In other words, just as dimensionality doesn't apply to omnipotence, it doesn't apply to omnipresence and omniscience either. If one of them is conditioned, then it isn't the real attribute. The example I most like to cite as "true" omnipresence is math. Mathematics is in all dimensions (remember that the very concept of dimensionality arose in mathematics with Euclidean geometry), and at the same time is in nothingness (mathematically nothing is the number 0; the empty set can also express this). Idk how the wiki here deals (I believe it isn't so, based on what Ultima said), but in any case, omnipresence and omniscience "true" should necessarily be so.