Question about Qualitative Superiority for H1-B and above

[Benimōru]

Now what's on my mind is that what we call "qualitative superiority", as I understand it, leads to a bit of a contradiction on H1-B and above, and I'm wondering if I'm thinking wrong.

So, to put it simply, let's think of 2 same qualitative superiorities (for example, 2 same R>F feats with enough context to call them qualitative superiority). And character A achieves one of them against H1-B and becomes L1-A. And character B achieves the other one against L1-A and becomes 1-A.

And this qualitative superiority (since VSBW accepts the continuum hypothesis as correct) is in the logic of Aleph_0^Aleph_0 for going from H1-B to L1-A and Aleph_1^Aleph_1 for going from L1-A to 1-A. And this means that the difference between L1-A and 1-A is much, much greater than the difference between H1-B and L1-A. So, how can we equate these two differences with the same qualitative superiority? Isn't this a contradiction, or am I missing something?

 

[ActuallySpaceMan42]

Confused by what you mean. Nothing is set in stone, two similar methods of transcendence can reach different levels as long as the verse treats it as such.

The Verses logic comes first, and then VSBW's.

 

[Benimōru]

Confused by what you mean.

I apologize that I may have explained it in a strange way because I couldn't quite understand the issue as well. I will try to ask as clearly as possible.

Let's imagine two characters who have both achieved qualitative superiority in the same way (both in the same verse). One of them achieves this qualitative superiority against a H1-B structure and becomes L1-A. The other is performing against L1-A and becomes 1-A. What I don't understand is how we can equate two qualitative superiority feats achieved by the same method, when the difference between H1-B and L1-A and the difference between L1-A and 1-A are not equal.

In short, shouldn't (at least) a single feat of qualitative superiority not be enough for an upgrade from L1-A to 1-A?

 

[ActuallySpaceMan42]

Let's imagine two characters who have both achieved qualitative superiority in the same way (both in the same verse). One of them achieves this qualitative superiority against a H1-B structure and becomes L1-A. The other is performing against L1-A and becomes 1-A. What I don't understand is how we can equate two qualitative superiority feats achieved by the same method, when the difference between H1-B and L1-A and the difference between L1-A and 1-A are not equal.

This is under the assumption that just because the methods are the same, their degree is the same. The simple fact that Character B would be able to view Character A as fiction shows that despite them both using R > F, one is to a much higher degree than the other.

 

[Benimōru]

This is under the assumption that just because the methods are the same, their degree is the same. The simple fact that Character B would be able to view Character A as fiction shows that despite them both using R > F, one is to a much higher degree than the other.

So, if one person achieves this qualitative superiority feat against a higher structure than the other (even if the methods are the same), it means that this character has a greater feat than the other. Do I understand correctly?

If so, it's simpler than I thought lol. I just made it a bit complicated in my mind I guess.

 

[ActuallySpaceMan42]

So, if one person achieves this qualitative superiority feat against a higher structure than the other (even if the methods are the same), it means that this character has a greater feat than the other. Do I understand correctly?

If so, it's simpler than I thought lol. I just made it a bit complicated in my mind I guess.

Yup

 

[Benimōru]

All right, thanks for your help

Now I have to go and ask if a thread moderator can close this...