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Question about Aleph numbers

Would uncountable infinite^uncountable infinite^uncountable infinite^uncountable infinite (repeat uncountable infinite amount of times) be enough to reach Aleph 2?
 
What. No it is not. You cannot reach Aleph 1 by simply stacking infinities.
Yeah you cant by the same logic you cant reach infinite by stacking finite numbers
according to the continuum hypothesis, it just works.


refer to the continuum hypothesis section.
 
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stacking finite numbers won't give u infinite numbers

stacking countable infinite numbers won't give u uncountable infinite numbers

and so on, stacking aleph one won't give u aleph two

but the power set of a cardinal will always be bigger than the cardinal itself

so 2^aleph null = aleph one
2^aleph one = aleph two
and so on

in your case, yes, this is aleph two.
 
Power sets and collection of subsets is always bigger than a cardinal.

I know this is kinda late
But in the continuum hypothesis assuming it's true it would work like this
2^Aleph null=Aleph one
And then just continue endlessly.

Anyways about the question it should be aleph two, yes.

Note:You can't reach limit ordinals or cardinals by this kind of sequence you would need a different method or atleast different in a way for some.
(Mostly large cardinals honestly.)
 
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