Question about cosmology

[Frxwins]

I have a few questions about Aleph after I read the tiering system.

• There are an infinite number of 4D universes where each universe will produce branches but only one universe

• The second explanation is similar to the previous explanation, there are an infinite number of universes but each universe no longer only produces one universe but each universe will produce an infinite number of other universes.

Which of these explanations agrees with how to derive the Aleph-1 (inf^inf) cosmology? or even neither, if so, why?

 

[Benimōru]

First one is still Aleph-0. Because it will only be Aleph-0 + Aleph-0.

And if what you mean in the second statement is that there is only infinite branching from infinite universes and it is only a one time thing, then it is still Aleph-0. Because it would be Aleph-0 x Aleph-0, which is still Aleph-0. To get from this kind of thing to Aleph-1, this infinite universe has to branch out into infinite universes and so on infinitely. Because this would be Aleph-0 repetition of "Aleph-0 x Aleph-0" and the result would be Aleph-1 according to CH

 

[Rendynoc0unter]

Both Aleph-0.