Megaraptor149
He/Him- 2,301
- 798
Does being completely independent from human logic grant Nonduality by default? If yes, what type?"
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Nonduality stuff
- Thread starter Megaraptor149
- Start date
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- Tags
- nonduality
AlipheeseXIV
He/Him- 3,296
- 1,799
Umm...as far as I am aware no. (Unless the human logic in this example verse is an actual metaphysical/conceptual system that has actual effects and consequences on reality) simply put, there are many over exaggerative terms that say things like "being beyond human knowledge", "beyond the scope of humanity", etc. These by themselves don't serve as adequate proof for ND, to quote the page
"Nonduality and Transduality are states of being wherein an entity exists independently of, or qualitatively beyond, various dual systems, ranging from specific, limited sets of dual distinctions to duality itself on a conceptual level"
Now, giving you the benefit of the doubt assuming human logic in this example verse serves as an actual dual system that is actually apart of/affects reality or is some sort of actual universal concept. Then, the type it grants could honestly be any of them tbh. Type 1 would assume human logic would be one side of the same coin with...well let's say "lacking human knowledge" that way in this example 1 (being human knowledge) and 0 (being the lack of human knowledge) would grant type 1.
However, assuming human logic in this example verse occupies an entire level of reality then it would be type 2. Finally, it could be type 3 using the many valued truths logics since theoretically by being independent of human logic they'd be beyond contradiction-allowing logic. But I should warn you, this is a MASSIVE stretch and 9.9/10 times you won't get this accepted without more adequate proof, as like I said earlier simply being independent of human logic without further support is meaningless. Hope that was able to give you a solid answer!
"Nonduality and Transduality are states of being wherein an entity exists independently of, or qualitatively beyond, various dual systems, ranging from specific, limited sets of dual distinctions to duality itself on a conceptual level"
Now, giving you the benefit of the doubt assuming human logic in this example verse serves as an actual dual system that is actually apart of/affects reality or is some sort of actual universal concept. Then, the type it grants could honestly be any of them tbh. Type 1 would assume human logic would be one side of the same coin with...well let's say "lacking human knowledge" that way in this example 1 (being human knowledge) and 0 (being the lack of human knowledge) would grant type 1.
However, assuming human logic in this example verse occupies an entire level of reality then it would be type 2. Finally, it could be type 3 using the many valued truths logics since theoretically by being independent of human logic they'd be beyond contradiction-allowing logic. But I should warn you, this is a MASSIVE stretch and 9.9/10 times you won't get this accepted without more adequate proof, as like I said earlier simply being independent of human logic without further support is meaningless. Hope that was able to give you a solid answer!
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