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Is Resisting Something That Resists Something Else Layered Resistance?

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Like if A resists mind manipulation and B resists A, would B have 1 layer of resistance? I see this a lot with cultivation novels where a higher realm resists a lower one.
 
Like if A resists mind manipulation and B resists A, would B have 1 layer of resistance?
Not quite. Let's say X is the one with mind control. For another, let's add individual C who ALSO resists Mind Manipulation.

X Controls B = Baseline Mindhax (B has no resistance)

X Controls C = 1 layer of Mindhax (C had a resistance that was overpowered by X)

X tries to control A, fails = 1 layer of Resistance (For A, who resisted when C could not)

Now let's say X improves his mind control down the line.

X tries to control A, succeeds = 2 Layers of Mindhax.

In your scenario, there is no layer of resistance because A's resistance to mind manipulation has no correlation with B resisting A's hax. It only matters if A had the mindhax that was layered, then B resisted it.
 
Not quite. Let's say X is the one with mind control. For another, let's add individual C who ALSO resists Mind Manipulation.

X Controls B = Baseline Mindhax (B has no resistance)

X Controls C = 1 layer of Mindhax (C had a resistance that was overpowered by X)

X tries to control A, fails = 1 layer of Resistance (For A, who resisted when C could not)

Now let's say X improves his mind control down the line.

X tries to control A, succeeds = 2 Layers of Mindhax.

In your scenario, there is no layer of resistance because A's resistance to mind manipulation has no correlation with B resisting A's hax. It only matters if A had the mindhax that was layered, then B resisted it.
This is a different scenario. Lets say A resists anything that is not A, and only As can affect it. And B resists everything that is not it like A. It can effect A while also resisting it.

Would that give A 1 layer of potency due to affecting each other. And B 2 layers of resistance and potency due to affecting each other?
 
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