ArachDusa
She/Her- 107
- 42
Having true omniscience means having infallible knowledge of the future. That much is clear. But would a being be disqualified for that if they have perfect knowledge of not just "the future", but every version of the future, in a cosmology where all possible futures are equally real, leading to that being losing a fight where they should "know exactly what to do to win it" simply because the timeline we see happen and the timeline where they won are both real futures that actually happened? What if there's an omniscient being in a setting where the timeline splits every time an event with multiple outcomes occurs and therefore there is no "timeline where they won" or "timeline where they lost" until after the event actually occurs? Would such a being count as having complete omniscience despite not being able to use their perfect foreknowledge to determine the outcome of an event?
