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Cosmology question

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If a verse has infinite universes. And for every universe there’s an infinite amount of variations. Is this simply higher into 2-A?
 
If a verse has infinite universes. And for every universe there’s an infinite amount of variations. Is this simply higher into 2-A?
It's still 2A. Infinite universes and how many infinite variations there are within it is 2A

Of course, there is a different explanation from the mathematical point of view.
 
Even if you add infinite separate variations to 2-A, this is still baseline 2-A. But if there is a higher plane or a larger space than 2-A, you get the Low 1-C because there is no baseline bullshit above 2-A.
 
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