Rikimarox2
He/Him- 9,164
- 5,458
So, a simple question.
Basically, in the novel that Im reading there are innumerable different dimensions and worlds.
Our MC went into one of these dimensions, and in that dimension, there was magic and other stuff that doesn't exist in his world. Furthermore, time is 2.7x faster than on earth.
Also, the villain's existence in these worlds passively manipulate the laws of causality so they can win. So when the Mc kills them, it was stated that "that world's laws of causality will return to normal." implying each world has its own laws of causality.
Additionally, the villain there has regressed from the future to change the past and stuff. And the Mc says he can the overlaps of the world by comparing the original and current time line.
So, I gotta ask, can this be enough to assume worlds are different space-times, and if so, does this make the cosmology 2-C to 2-B due to innumerable worlds?
Basically, in the novel that Im reading there are innumerable different dimensions and worlds.
Our MC went into one of these dimensions, and in that dimension, there was magic and other stuff that doesn't exist in his world. Furthermore, time is 2.7x faster than on earth.
Also, the villain's existence in these worlds passively manipulate the laws of causality so they can win. So when the Mc kills them, it was stated that "that world's laws of causality will return to normal." implying each world has its own laws of causality.
Additionally, the villain there has regressed from the future to change the past and stuff. And the Mc says he can the overlaps of the world by comparing the original and current time line.
So, I gotta ask, can this be enough to assume worlds are different space-times, and if so, does this make the cosmology 2-C to 2-B due to innumerable worlds?