How do time axises work?

[TheOrangeGuy09]

I noticed recently in Universe page that:

In the absence of contradictory evidence, timelines are assumed to share the same time axis i.e. the same dimension of time. Note that sharing the same temporal axis does not mean that they would be connected in any way, as it only means that their time flows in the same direction. It's like how two people can both move in the same direction without their paths ever meeting, as long as they started in different places.

So, if I understand it correctly, these universes are just separate spaces, and they all share same time axis unless anything else suggests otherwise.

Then would a universe twice as big than normal one be 2-C? It can contain two such universes and time axis is same case of two distinct universes and one universe twice as big as another one. Would an infinitely-sized universe be 2-A by the same logic?

Also, another question which relates to that is: if parallel timelines out of infinite colliding with each other leads to them shattering and forever being lost within the fabric of space-time, would it indicate an existence of an additional temporal axis or no? Because then it is obvious that two parallel timelines coexist in a space-time, which would make Low 1-C ig? What about a bunch of universes being collectively called as a timeline? Would it be a “hypertimeline”?

But really, not an expert on temporal dimensions, which is why I asked these two.

(And sorry if I asked something completely obvious or/and stupid lol)

 

[TheGodOfICE777]

No, basically the logic is that multiple space-time continuums can fall under one time dimension. So essentially a temporal dimension can separate spaces, spatio-temporally which allows for 2-C to 2-A structures under one dimension of time. The reason for this is because of how space-times can be labeled with R. (I don’t understand the R stuff that well). So, no, an infinitely sized universe wouldn’t be 2-A, unless there’s good evidence i.e. infinite space-time continuums in one universe.

The first part of your second question I don’t really understand what you’re asking, but regarding the second portion, no. A collection of a bunch of universes being called a timeline wouldn’t count as a hypertimeline either. Since the default assumption would be that one dimension of time separates these universes spatiotemporally, unless stated otherwise, such as the universe harboring their own dimensions of time. For a timeline containing timelines (universes) to qualify for Low 1-C it needs to be established as a separate temporal dimension that time could flow in distinct from past/future, or as there being uncountably infinitely many new points in time for each point in time.

 

[ActuallySpaceMan42]

Then would a universe twice as big than normal one be 2-C? It can contain two such universes and time axis is same case of two distinct universes and one universe twice as big as another one. Would an infinitely-sized universe be 2-A by the same logic?

If you're talking about physical size, that only really matters when talking about Tier 3, 3D Stuff, and below.

Universes that are Low 2-C are so because their timelines are formed from uncountable infinite snapshots of the physical universal. As such, it doesn't matter if the physical universe in question is 3 times as big, 7 times, or infinite times, the difference is infinitesimal and unnoteworthy. It's like comparing infinite grains of sand, to infinite mountains, in the end, the quality is irrelevant cause the quantity is infinite.

On the other hand, if a space-time is capable of containing two other space-times that are universal in size, then it could be Low 1-C.

Also, another question which relates to that is: if parallel timelines out of infinite colliding with each other leads to them shattering and forever being lost within the fabric of space-time, would it indicate an existence of an additional temporal axis or no? Because then it is obvious that two parallel timelines coexist in a space-time, which would make Low 1-C ig? What about a bunch of universes being collectively called as a timeline? Would it be a “hypertimeline”?

Timelines colliding with one another can't mean anything without more context. Why were they colliding, was it a natural event, or caused by something? Likewise, calling a bunch of universes a timeline doesn't mean anything unless there is context as to why they are being called that.

 

[TheOrangeGuy09]

No, basically the logic is that multiple space-time continuums can fall under one time dimension. So essentially a temporal dimension can separate spaces, spatio-temporally which allows for 2-C to 2-A structures under one dimension of time. The reason for this is because of how space-times can be labeled with R. (I don’t understand the R stuff that well). So, no, an infinitely sized universe wouldn’t be 2-A, unless there’s good evidence i.e. infinite space-time continuums in one universe.

If you're talking about physical size, that only really matters when talking about Tier 3, 3D Stuff, and below.

Universes that are Low 2-C are so because their timelines are formed from uncountable infinite snapshots of the physical universal. As such, it doesn't matter if the physical universe in question is 3 times as big, 7 times, or infinite times, the difference is infinitesimal and unnoteworthy. It's like comparing infinite grains of sand, to infinite mountains, in the end, the quality is irrelevant cause the quantity is infinite.

I just thought that since time axis is basically the same for an infinitely-sized universe and a collection of infinite universes, and their physical size is the same, then they would be the same. And also it should make sense that infinitely-sized universe could contain infinite amount of universes with the logic above. Here's a bit more of my line of thoughts:

So basically one universe looks like the picture below, right?

It is basically a space-time with Volume v and 4th (temporal dimension) infinite, it is like the Volume v being "copied-and pasted" infinite times along time axis

Now, two separate universes together would look like the picture below, right?

Basically, these two space-times with Volume v and 4th (temporal dimension) infinite each, they would collectively have Volume 2v and 4th dimension infinite, so basically all of the volume 2v being copied and pasted along the time axis infinite times

Then a universe 2x sized the regular one would be able to contain them, it is the same as the description of what we get when we take 2 universes "collectively":
Volume 2v and 4th dimension infinite, so basically all of the volume 2v being copied and pasted along the time axis infinite times

I honestly don't know if that makes sense, but I hope it does.

The first part of your second question I don’t really understand what you’re asking

Timelines colliding with one another can't mean anything without more context. Why were they colliding, was it a natural event, or caused by something?

Basically the point was that they are colliding in a space-time. Would it indicate Low 1-C, or no?
There is also another situation that seems like Low 1-C: a timeline is destroyed, but you can still see its events through looking at the space-time which is implied to be the multiverse. So basically the question was if parallel universes are contained by a space-time, would this space-time be Low 1-C, and this:

On the other hand, if a space-time is capable of containing two other space-times that are universal in size, then it could be Low 1-C.

answers it.

A collection of a bunch of universes being called a timeline wouldn’t count as a hypertimeline either. Since the default assumption would be that one dimension of time separates these universes spatiotemporally, unless stated otherwise, such as the universe harboring their own dimensions of time. For a timeline containing timelines (universes) to qualify for Low 1-C it needs to be established as a separate temporal dimension that time could flow in distinct from past/future, or as there being uncountably infinitely many new points in time for each point in time.

Likewise, calling a bunch of universes a timeline doesn't mean anything unless there is context as to why they are being called that.

Okay. The reason is that there are alternate timelines to each set of universes, but ig it would not qualify due to what God of Ice said.

Also now thinking on all of that I remembered something in Tiering System page:

Because the distance between any given number of universes embedded in higher-dimensional / higher-order spaces is currently unknowable, it is impossible to quantify the numerical gap between each one of the subtiers in Tier 2. As such, it is not allowed to upgrade such a character based solely on multipliers. For example, someone twice as strong as a Low 2-C character would still be Low 2-C, and someone infinitely more powerful than a 2-C would not be 2-A. This does not mean that the difference between these tiers is greater than infinite, merely that the difference is unknown.

Wouldn't it mean that we should not know the outcome of a fight between 2-C and Low 2-C characters?

Anyways, thank you for answering my questions, I really appreaciate it.