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question about AP diference in 1-A

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so... i was discusing in a thread with people and then i come to the question if A is sligthy above baseline and B is baseline does A stomps or is just a sligthy AP advantage?
 
If they are only sligthly above baseline when why should they stomp? Differences in AP aren't infinitly big only
 
okay fine but if A is omnipresent would B would be able to affect A if A is bigger that B?
 
Totally depends on what you mean by "slightly above baseline". Are they like a layer or two above baseline, or just above the baseline but not higher into proper 1-A. To give an example, 1 is the baseline. In the former case, "slightly above baseline" would be a 2 or 3, while in the latter case it would be something like 1.23442.

The former would be a complete stomp, while the latter not that much.
 
Totally depends on what you mean by "slightly above baseline". Are they like a layer or two above baseline, or just above the baseline but not higher into proper 1-A. To give an example, 1 is the baseline. In the former case, "slightly above baseline" would be a 2 or 3, while in the latter case it would be something like 1.23442.

The former would be a complete stomp, while the latter not that much.
No i am refering like this
A has 1.1 in power while B is just 1
 
Totally depends on what you mean by "slightly above baseline". Are they like a layer or two above baseline, or just above the baseline but not higher into proper 1-A. To give an example, 1 is the baseline. In the former case, "slightly above baseline" would be a 2 or 3, while in the latter case it would be something like 1.23442.

The former would be a complete stomp, while the latter not that much.
It's the 1.2344, E is not 1 layer above, he is just a litter higher in 1-A pure baseline.
 
I mean, if a normal human fights against another human with omnipresence, can he affect him? Depends on how the omnipresence works.
 
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