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time stop users have resistance to time stop?

On its own it doesn't automatically give resistance. With context it could.

For example if a time stop is achieved using a Universal Energy Source, and that UES has time stop resistance, then you would get the resistance.
 
Can you guys give a reason why having a time stop won't get resistance? Wouldn't most time-stop users be able to run at the time they stopped?
 
because he can move in stopped time?
yeah, their own stopped time, unless theyve shown they can move or think in other peoples stopped time they wouldnt get resistance just by moving in their own time stop, the only reason it doesnt work on them is because its their timestop
 
I'm guessing it's kinda like someone using Fire abilities without burning themselves or ice abilities without freezing, the common trope of not hurting yourself with your own attacks, which not always are given an in-story explanation that the user has a natural resistance or such (sometimes it's just a normal person that had just discovered their powers). So I guess unless there are explicit feats of resistance or statements that users resists one must assume they don't?

IIRC there are cases of Time Stoppers not being resistant to it, for example, in the Unordinary Webcomic, Seraphina and her mother both have time controlling abilities, and at one point they use them on each other, but Seraphina wins this duel because she can trigger them faster. The interesting point is that none seemed to actually resist each other's powers, and Seraphina simply won because she stopped her mother from triggering hers.
 
I'm guessing it's kinda like someone using Fire abilities without burning themselves or ice abilities without freezing, the common trope of not hurting yourself with your own attacks, which not always are given an in-story explanation that the user has a natural resistance or such (sometimes it's just a normal person that had just discovered their powers). So I guess unless there are explicit feats of resistance or statements that users resists one must assume they don't?

IIRC there are cases of Time Stoppers not being resistant to it, for example, in the Unordinary Webcomic, Seraphina and her mother both have time controlling abilities, and at one point they use them on each other, but Seraphina wins this duel because she can trigger them faster. The interesting point is that none seemed to actually resist each other's powers, and Seraphina simply won because she stopped her mother from triggering hers.
but how is it not because there is no resistance but because the opponent has negation resistance?

isn't giving the excuse that a time stop user can still be stopped with a time stop ability that doesn't make sense because of the possibility that his opponent has negation resistance?
 
but how is it not because there is no resistance but because the opponent has negation resistance?

isn't giving the excuse that a time stop user can still be stopped with a time stop ability that doesn't make sense because of the possibility that his opponent has negation resistance?
I think it's better to be conservative and stick to the explicit evidence you do have as much as possible. For instance, not all Time Stops in fiction work by halting the entirety of it including the user, some are explained to not affect the user's own time. Seraphina, for example, is explained to keep her own flowing and she speeds it up or rewinds it depending on what she wants to do, and in some games, the Time Mages of FF in some games can cast Stop but it will not affect themselves nor allies, despite showing a large AOE effect.

I'm not saying a Resistance Negation is impossible or anything, but it needs a bit of context. As mentioned above, for example, if in the story Magic makes by default all users resistant to their powers, then even if it's not stated the Time Stopper Magician will resist his own Time based powers. Or a small lampshade or something can also be good enough.
 
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